5 Comments

  1. Tuck, I think this is wrong. Tyndale translated from Erasmus’ 6 Greek manuscripts. I wonder why they have him coming off the Latin? And the KJV and Matthews and all the rest come after Tyndale. Weird. Where did you get this?

    1. Wycliffe was the first to translate the English Bible, but from Jerome’s Vulgate. Tyndale was the first to traslate the English Bible, but from Erasmus’ Greek. I mean besides some of the early ones around Bede’s time.

    1. Tuck, my information came from a book (just are unreliable! :) It’s a little book by Clinton Arnold: book:http://www.amazon.com/How-Got-Bible-Zondervan-Reference/dp/0310253063/ref=sr_1_3?ie=UTF8&qid=1341110248&sr=8-3&keywords=how+we+got+the+bible Arnold is one of the top protestant mainline scholars on Colossians, and I read some of his stuff when I was studying Colossians. That is how I discovered the book. It’s a kid’s book for adults. Also, I spent some time a few years ago studying Tynale and read this book : http://www.amazon.com/William-Tyndale-Biography-Nota-Bene/dp/0300068808/ref=sr_1_1?s=books&ie=UTF8&qid=1341110414&sr=1-1&keywords=william+tyndale, which reveals just how much the KJV relied on Tyndale’s translation. Anyway, that’s where my information comes from.

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